Question:
Explain how that in Acts 20:26 Paul says he is “innocent of the blood of all men”. In Acts 8:1 Paul admits he was “consenting to (Stephen’s) death”. He “made havoc of the church” Acts 8:3. In Acts 22:4, “I persecuted this way to the death, binding and delivering into prisons both men and women.” Acts 26:9-11 "I thought, that I ought to do many things contrary to the name of Jesus. Which thing I also did in Jerusalem : and many of the saints did I shut up in prison, having received authority from the chief priests; and when they were put to death, I gave my voice against [them]. And I punished them often in every synagogue, and compelled [them] to blaspheme; and being exceedingly mad against them, I persecuted [them] even to foreign cities.”

In the face of this overwhelming confession, how could Paul possibly say he was “innocent of the blood of all men?”

Answer:

We thank you for this question, for it is a valid one. Yes, Paul did participate in the suffering and the death of Christians. However, in Acts 20:26 Paul is speaking of him having preached the gospel to all men. To the Jew (Acts 9:20 ) and the Gentile (Gal.2:8) which he did. Consequently he fulfilled the mission given to him by Jesus in Acts 9:15 “to bear My name before Gentiles, kings and the children of Israel .”

We must remember that God can, and will, forgive any sin for which we will repent. For example: In Acts 2 Peter was preaching to the men who had killed Jesus, yet they were told to “repent and be baptized for the remission of their sins.” We see that in Acts 9:6 Paul asks, “what do you want me to do?” In verse 18 we read “he arose and was baptized.” We can conclude that baptism washes away sins Acts 22:16.

Bill Watkins - posted 1-13-2009